@Chad and I got into an argument/ discussion about the requirement of references in What law compels countries to take prisoners who are NOT trying to surrender?
He wanted a reference to an answer by @MistahMix which claimed there are no laws for a specific behavior, saying that answers needed references. My position was that if the answer was that no laws applied, the burden of proof was on the potential refuter of the answer. He suggested this question belonged on meta, so here it is:
When an answer is stating that no law applies, shouldn't the axiom of trying to prove a negative also apply? If that is the case, is this not a perfectly legitimate answer (assuming it is factual) without cited references?