I posted an answer to this question:
Has any government made the unwinding of their US bonds and currency reserves** a core public policy plank or a law on the books?
My answer was, No, here is the reason why. [blah blah blah].
It was deleted (I am guessing), because the OP decided it wasn't an answer and a moderator agreed.
Should my answer to this question have been deleted, if so why?
No country has, because they don't need to. The interest on the debt is 1/10th what they receive in revenue.
PolitiFact looked into this issue back in 2011 and declared it True on their Truth-o-meter.
Whether or not the debt ceiling is raised, the federal government collects significantly more revenue than it needs to fulfill U.S. debt obligations," Forbes wrote. "If the debt ceiling is reached, the government will still have ten times as much revenue as it needs to make debt payments. The only way the U.S. will immediately default upon reaching the debt ceiling is if the government actively chooses to do so by not making debt payments."
Well, if we’re talking about today, Forbes is absolutely right.
Forbes' bill, the Full Faith and Credit Act would require the Secretary of the Treasury (Treasury) to make timely payments of principal and interest when the statutory debt limit is reached. The House passed this legislation since their has been conflicting statements from the Treasury whether they could prioritize payments on the debt. If the US defaults on it's bond holders, it is only because the Senate and/or the President chose not to.
Additionally, the 14th Amendment requires that the US debt is paid, to do otherwise is unconstitutional.
The validity of public debt of the United States [...], shall not be questioned.