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Well I asked a question a day ago: Why is has the US not "followed through" with secularisation after the hippie movement?

As one can see in the question and answers I have to "defend"/ask for extra information a lot when handling the question. Where a lot of attention goes to the fact if it's a good question or not.

This is actually what made me spawn the question in the first place. The topic I hit upon in the question is considered "normal" in the Netherlands, and we consider those things to always go "hand in hand". So the whole questioning of that question in itself is something I am startled by. (And with that, also the question comes, why is this not talked about in the US).

When looking at the answers they seem to "evade" the actual question: "why is there such a difference between the US and Europe in the follow up on the counter-culture from the 60s", and instead the answers focus on the US as a singular entity without the interaction with the rest of the world. "Only a few", "it was never even a thing" - While the same arguments could be said for Europe so that cannot be a reason.

So how would I salvage that question, without going into a debate with the answerers. So that focus is on what created the difference between Western Europe and the US. Especially since Western Europe in the early days after the second world war actively tried to mimic the US, thus logic dictates that the culture would grow closer together.

Bottomline: How to improve the question so that it doesn't turn into a discussion but rather an overview of what caused the effects in politics.

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    Based on your question and comments, I think you're asking for too simple an answer for too complex a problem. There are many factors that make the US and Europe different, and your question seems to have some odd (at least to me) assumptions, like the US hippie movement being the driving factor behind secularization in Europe. Those sorts of assumptions are going to attract (appropriately) challenges. – Bryan Krause Feb 15 at 16:17
  • "so that cannot be a reason." This is not true. It may be that both in the US and in Europe that hippies had nothing to do with secularization. Historians in Europe making that claim may simply be wrong. – Brythan Feb 16 at 1:00
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I suspect that if someone looks, they will find that the US was more religious than Europe both before and after the 60s. And both the US and Europe saw increasing secularization. I.e. I suspect that your thesis is wrong. Perhaps you should research that before you ask why it is true.

As is you make a couple claims:

  • Hippies caused secularization in Europe.
  • Secularization only increased in Europe.

And then you ask a question, assuming that these are true. I would recommend that you either

  • Do some research on this and include it in your question.
  • Or start by asking if one of these is true. I would start with the second, as it is more objective.

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