Well I asked a question a day ago: Why is has the US not "followed through" with secularisation after the hippie movement?
As one can see in the question and answers I have to "defend"/ask for extra information a lot when handling the question. Where a lot of attention goes to the fact if it's a good question or not.
This is actually what made me spawn the question in the first place. The topic I hit upon in the question is considered "normal" in the Netherlands, and we consider those things to always go "hand in hand". So the whole questioning of that question in itself is something I am startled by. (And with that, also the question comes, why is this not talked about in the US).
When looking at the answers they seem to "evade" the actual question: "why is there such a difference between the US and Europe in the follow up on the counter-culture from the 60s", and instead the answers focus on the US as a singular entity without the interaction with the rest of the world. "Only a few", "it was never even a thing" - While the same arguments could be said for Europe so that cannot be a reason.
So how would I salvage that question, without going into a debate with the answerers. So that focus is on what created the difference between Western Europe and the US. Especially since Western Europe in the early days after the second world war actively tried to mimic the US, thus logic dictates that the culture would grow closer together.
Bottomline: How to improve the question so that it doesn't turn into a discussion but rather an overview of what caused the effects in politics.