I haven't posted to Politics.SE before, but this question is something that I have wondered about for a while. I started drafting it, but given my lack of experience on the site thought I would bring my draft here first, as I understand that it could be controversial.

Please let me know if this question is not a good fit, and if so, what could be done to salvage it.

How do Republicans explain their lack of support among minority voters?

From a 2016 Pew Research Study, "The Parties on the Eve of the 2016 Election: Two Coalitions, Moving Further Apart":

Trends in party affiliation among black voters have been largely stable over recent years. Overall, 87% of black voters identify with the Democratic Party or lean Democratic, compared with just 7% who identify as Republican or lean Republican.

Among Hispanic voters, the Democratic Party holds a 63% to 27% advantage over the GOP in leaned party identification. As with black voters, trends in party affiliation among Hispanic voters have changed little in recent years.

One hypothesis as to why this trend exists, would be if GOP candidates, officials, and/or policies were racist or discriminatory. Many Democrats believe that Republicans are racist.

However, the GOP disavows racism in it's official platform:

we oppose discrimination based on race, sex, religion, creed, disability, or national origin and support statutes to end such discrimination.

This policy is at least partly supported in action by the fact that several GOP officials recently condemned what they saw as racist tweets by Trump.

From a Republican perspective, how is the preference of minorities for the Democratic party explained in line with their anti-discrimination stance?

What I am looking for is a thesis or explanation, from a Republican perspective, as to why the GOP has little support among minorities in the U.S., as a counter to the common Democratic explanation that Republican candidates and policies are racist.

  • As always in politics, there are multiple factors but part of the "correct" answer isn't dependent on Republicans stating it and comes from basic political science: rural vs. urban is one of the strongest predictors of party affiliation and guess where races congregate (Hint: Pew knows: pewsocialtrends.org/2018/05/22/…)
    – user4012
    Jul 25, 2019 at 23:51
  • @user4012 I've now posted this question on the main site -- I encourage you to comment/answer there. However what I want to know is how Republicans explain the phenomenon w/r/t their ideology -- not the sociological factors that influence it (and I agree with you on that point).
    – LShaver
    Jul 26, 2019 at 14:14

1 Answer 1


This question looks good to me. You're being very careful to ask for the stated viewpoint of a specific group. This is something we can answer with quotes. You've also done a lot of prior research which helps define the question. This looks like an interesting question and a great fit for this site. I would upvote it.

  • Thanks for advice. Posted here.
    – LShaver
    Jul 20, 2019 at 15:57

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