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5 votes closed Direct Applicability v. Direct Effect as it "needs to be more focused". How can I focus it pls?

Did you want me to quote less? I'm afraid of quoting less as you may require more context. Thx.

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We can only guess what lead the five community members who voted to close this question, because none of them bothered to leave a comment to explain why they voted to close.

My personal reaction to the question was that I found it quite intimidating. The only part of it which is actually question is this:

Is there any contradiction or incongruity between these two books' definitions? I don't grasp them, but the boldened phrases look contradictory.

It implies that one has to actually read and understand these two books in order to really be competent to answer the question. It doesn't even mention what your concrete problem is with understanding this distinction. If you had actually read these two books, it would be obvious to you.

However, the actual question is actually much simpler than is implied here: "What is the difference between EU laws with direct applicability and EU laws with direct effect?". Therefore my recommendation would be to actually ask that and then explain how you personally understand it according to these two sources and which aspects of this distinction are unclear to you. Then you could ask the community to tell you if your understanding is so far correct and ask them to explain those distinctions which are unclear to you.

And people wouldn't actually have to read those books, because there are many more sources to draw this information from.

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