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There's a certain user here who wrote about a dozen times ""Palestinian" Arabs" (in two different posts, but one was deleted; here's a link to the one still standing.) Sure one can subscribe to some form of pan-Arabism and/or invoke the "artificialness" (with or without scare quotes) of the borders in the middle East post Sykes-Pigot and what not.

[But at what point] does it become a CoC violation to e.g. write ""Egyptians"", ""Syrians"", ""Jordanians"", or ""Iraqis"" i.e. use scare quotes whenever one refers to modern identities? And likewise, can one write ""Kurds"" (i.e. in scare quotes) all over because they don't even have a state?

Are these CoC violations?

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    Seems you miss the intent of exactly these quotes: there is a certain brew of Zionist/Pro-Israel viewpoints that claim 'any Palestinian nation/ethnicity' would be a post-1948 'invention'', intended to nothing less than delegitimize or even destroy the Israeli nation/state. But w/o context for your inquiry here, I'm also just speculating. A direct quote is strictly necessary to gauge either way what may be intended, or what may be read into such 'things'. Otherwise, on the face of what I read here, I'd say 'using quotes in what way ever cannot be a violation of whatever'? – LаngLаngС Apr 25 at 15:57
  • @LаngLаngС: I've added a link to the post. – Fizz Apr 25 at 16:04
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    I've since deleted the answer because I think it focuses on discrediting one side of the conflict rather than on answering the question asked. Nevertheless, I think your question here still stands. – JJJ Apr 25 at 19:48
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The code of conduct states:

No bigotry.
We don’t tolerate any language likely to offend or alienate people based on race, gender, sexual orientation, or religion

It seems given the nature of the Israeli/Palestinian dispute, that a person who self-identifies as Palestinian would be likely to be offended or alientated by the implication that their ethnicity doesn't exist, and so this is a CoC violation.

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    So, Shlomo Sand's "The Invention of the Jewish People" and "The Invention of the Land of Israel" are tabu here, but the opposite view in this Answer to "What is the historical basis of Israeli and Palestinian claims to the land that is now under Israeli control?" gets highly voted. " "Palestinians" as a sovereign nation did not exist until 20th century." – Keith McClary May 21 at 17:42

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